France required Germany to pay for all the destruction that Germany caused by first invading France in WW1. France and Poland knew Germany was a belligerent nation, and in 1921 signed a mutual defense pact. Germany knew this and invaded Poland, knowing France would attempt to defend Poland.
They maintained the blockade for almost a year after the armistice (just in case..). A hundred thousand died in the famine and a generation of children suffered severe malnutrition.
Now maintaining the blockade during the war was understandable but maintaining it after the fighting was over just to get better terms? Well that’s something many people would find hard to forgive..
> France and Poland knew Germany was a belligerent nation, and in 1921
No it had much more to do with the Polish-Soviet war than with Germany. The Soviets were seen (and rightly so) as a much bigger threat to Eastern and Central Europe than Germany in the 20s
So if Russia now invaded Poland or the Baltic States and France/US/UK 'attacked' Russia in response that would not be a justifiable thing to do? Because that's exactly what you're saying...
> France had treated Germany horribly
1. Yes. But that happened 20 years ago as a response to a German invasion of France (and Belgium but why would anyone care about the people that get caught in between...). And both countries were on a path towards reconciliation after Locarno. This does not make Nazi actions in any way more justifiable...
> a great casus belli
The world thankfully does not work like a Paradox grand strategy game...
Very different situation from Russia/Ukraine.